Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 21.06.2025 07:23
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Is it safe to say that China is at least 30 years ahead of India?
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
There's no rule.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Why does my ex boyfriend do this?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.